INDIA YEAR BOOK 2020 CHAPTER 3 Polity

CHAPTER 3 POLITY

CHAPTER 3 POLITY

1. Consider the following statement:
1. Indian Constitution envisages parliamentary form of government which is federal in structure with unitary features
2. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2


1.Answer: c
 The Constitution which envisages parliamentary form of government is federal in structure with unitary features. The President of India is the constitutional head of executive of the union. Article 74(1) of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as its head to aid and advise the President who shall in exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. The real executive power thus vests in the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as its head. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Similarly, in states, the Governor is the head of executive, but it is the Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as its head in whom real executive power vests. The Council of Ministers of a state is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the state


2. Residuary power in India lies with:
(a) State
(b) Centre
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above

2. Answer: b
The Constitution distributes legislative power between Parliament and State Legislatures and provides for vesting of residual powers in Parliament. The power to amend the Constitution also vests in Parliament. The Constitution has provision for independence of Judiciary, Comptroller and Auditor-General, Public Service Commissions and Chief Election Commission.

3. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides for a single citizenship for the whole of India.
2. A resident Indian cannot be granted Indian Citizenship
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Answer: A
The Constitution of India provides for a single citizenship for the whole of India. Every person who was at the commencement of the Constitution (January 26, 1950) domiciled in the territory of India and: (a) who was born in India; or (b) either of whose parents were born in India; or (c) who has been ordinarily resident in India for not less than five years became a citizen of India. The Citizenship Act, 1955, deals with matters relating to acquisition, determination and termination of Indian citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution

4. Consider the following statements:
1. By the 44th Amendment of the Constitution, adopted in 1976, Fundamental Duties of the citizens have been enumerated
2. Constitution offers all citizens, individually and collectively, some basic freedoms which are enforceable in court of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Answer: B

 The Constitution offers all citizens, individually and collectively, some basic freedoms. These are guaranteed in the Constitution in the form of six broad categories of Fundamental Rights which are justifiable. Articles 12 to 35 contained in Part III of the Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights. These are: (i) Right to equality including equality before law, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and equality of opportunity in matters of employment; (ii) Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association or union, movement, residence, and right to practice any profession or occupation (some of these rights are subject to security of the state, friendly relations with foreign countries, public order, decency or morality); (iii) Right against exploitation, prohibiting all forms of forced labour, child labour and traffic in human beings; (iv) Right to freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion; (v) Right of any section of citizens to conserve their culture, language or script and right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice; and (vi) Right to constitutional remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights
 By the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution, adopted in 1976, Fundamental Duties of the citizens have also been enumerated. Article 51 ‘A’ contained in Part IV A of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties. These enjoin upon a citizen among other things, to abide by the Constitution, to cherish and follow noble ideals, which inspired India’s struggle for freedom, to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so and to promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities.

5. Which of the following programme or scheme in sync with directive principle of state policy:
1. Indira Gandhi Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOPS)
2. Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana
3. NALSA
Select the correct answer from code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
5. Answer: d
• The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justifiable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’ and it is the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. These have been contained in Part IV from Articles 36 to 51 of the Constitution. These lay down that the state shall strive to promote the welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice—social, economic and political—shall form the basis in all institutions of national life.
• The state shall direct its policy in such a manner so as to secure the right of all men and women to an adequate means of livelihood, equal pay for equal work and within limits of its economic capacity and development, to make effective provision for securing the right to work, education and to public assistance in the event of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement or other cases of undeserved want. The state shall also endeavour to secure to workers a living wage, humane conditions of work, a decent standard of life and full involvement of workers in management of industries

6. Union executive consists of:
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Council of Ministers
Select the correct answer using the code given below?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) All of the above
6. Answer: d

 The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advise the President.

7. President may resign from office by writing to:
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Vice President
(c) Speaker of Loksabha
(d) Prime Minister
7. Answer: b
 The President is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of the states in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. To secure uniformity among states inter se as well as parity between the states, as a whole, and the Union, suitable weightage is given to each vote.
 The President must be a citizen of India, not less than 35 years of age and qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha. His term of office is five years and he is eligible for re-election. His removal from office is to be in accordance with procedure prescribed in Article 61 of the Constitution.
 He may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office

8. The supreme command of defense forces of the Union also vests in:
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Constitution
(d) Prime Minister

8. Answer: a
The executive power of the Union is vested in the President and is exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinates to him in accordance with the Constitution. The supreme command of defence forces of the Union also vests in him. The President summons, prorogues, addresses, sends messages to Parliament and dissolves the Lok Sabha; promulgates Ordinances at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session; makes recommendations for introducing financial and money bills and gives assent to bills; grants pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or suspends, remits or commutes sentences in certain cases. When there is a failure of the constitutional machinery in a state, he can assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of that state. The President can proclaim emergency in the country if he is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby security of India or any part of its territory is threatened whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion

9. Consider the following statements:
1. Vice-President is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
2. Vice president is a member of Upper house
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Answer: A
 The Vice-President is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. He must be a citizen of India, not less than 35 years of age and eligible for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha. His term of office is five years and he is eligible for re-election. His removal from office is to be in accordance with procedure prescribed in Article 67(b).
 The Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and acts as President when the latter is unable to discharge his functions due to absence, illness or any other cause or till the election of a new President (to be held within six months when a vacancy is caused by death, resignation or removal or otherwise of President). While so acting, he ceases to perform the function of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
 He is not a member of Upper House (Ex Officio)

10. Council of Ministers comprises:
1. Ministers who are members of Cabinet.
2. Ministers of State (independent charge)
3. Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) All of the above

10.Answer: d
 The Council of Ministers comprises ministers who are members of Cabinet, Ministers of State (independent charge), Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers.

11. Consider the following statements pertaining to Upper House:
1. Elections to the Rajya Sabha are both direct and indirect
2. The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution
3. Members representing union territories are chosen in such a manner as Parliament may by law prescribe.
Select the correct answer using the code given below?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

11. Answer: c
 Elections to the Rajya Sabha are indirect; members representing states are elected by the elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the states in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, and those representing union territories are chosen in such a manner as Parliament may by law prescribe. The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire every second year.

12. Consider the following statement:
1. All legislation requires consent of both the Houses of Parliament.
2. In the case of money bills the ‘will’ of the Lok Sabha prevails.
3. Delegated legislation is not subject to review and control by Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

12. Answer: b
All legislation requires consent of both the Houses of Parliament. In the case of money bills, however, the ‘will’ of the Lok Sabha prevails. Delegated legislation is also subject to review and control by Parliament. Besides the power to legislate, the Constitution vests in Parliament the power to initiate amendment of the Constitution.

13. Which committee of Upper House recommends allocation of time for discussion on stage or stages of private members’ bills and resolutions?
(a) Business Advisory Committee
(b) Rules Committee
(c) General Purposes Committee
(d) None of the above

13. Answer a
Standing Committees in each House, divided in terms of their functions, are (i) Committees to Inquire: (a) Committee on Petitions examines petitions on bills and on matters of general public interest and also entertains representations on matters concerning subjects in the Union List; and (b) Committee of Privileges examines any question of privilege referred to it by the House or Speaker/Chairman; (ii) Committees to Scrutinize: (a) Committee on Government Assurances keeps track of all the assurances, promises, undertakings, etc., given by Ministers in the House and pursues them till they are implemented; (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the power to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws, etc., conferred by the Constitution or Statutes is being properly exercised by the delegated authorities; and (c) Committee on Papers Laid on the Table examines all papers laid on the table of the House by ministers, other than statutory notifications and orders which come within the purview of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation, to see whether there has been compliance with the provisions of the Constitution, Act, rule or regulation under which the paper has been laid; (iii) Committees relating to the day-to-day business of the House: (a) Business Advisory Committee recommends allocation of time for items of Government and other business to be brought before the Houses; (b) Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions of the Lok Sabha classifies and allocates time to bills introduced by private members, recommends allocation of time for discussion on private members’ resolutions and examines Constitution
amendment bills before their introduction by private members in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha does not have such committee. It is the Business Advisory Committee of that House which recommends allocation of time for discussion on stage or stages of private members’ bills and resolutions; (c) Rules Committee considers matters of procedure and conduct of business in
the House and recommends amendments or additions to the rules; and (d) Committee on Absence
of Members from the Sittings of the House of the Lok Sabha considers all applications from
members for leave or absence from sittings of the House. There is no such committee in the
Rajya Sabha. Applications from members for leave or absence are considered by the House itself; (iv) Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, on which members from both Houses serve, considers all matters relating to the welfare of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes which come within the purview of the Union Government and keeps a watch whether constitutional safeguards in respect of these classes are properly implemented;
(v) Committees concerned with the provision of facilities to members: (a) General Purposes Committee considers and advises Speaker/Chairman on matters concerning affairs of the House, which do not appropriately fall within the purview of any other Parliamentary Committee; and
(b) House Committee deals with residential accommodation and other amenities for members;
(vi) Joint Committee on Salaries and Allowances of Members of Parliament, constituted under the Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954, apart from framing rules for regulating payment of salary, allowances and pension to Members of Parliament, also frames rules in respect of amenities like medical, housing, telephone, postal, constituency and secretarial facility; (vii) Joint Committee on Offices of Profit examines the composition and
character of committees and other bodies appointed by the Central and state governments and union territories administrations and recommends what offices ought to or ought not to disqualify a person from being chosen as a member of either House of Parliament; (viii) The Library Committee consisting of members from both Houses, considers matters concerning the Library of Parliament; (ix) On April 29, 1997, a Committee on Empowerment of Women with
members from both the Houses was constituted, to secure, status, dignity and equality for women
in all fields; (x) On March 4, 1997, the Ethics Committee of the Rajya Sabha was constituted. The Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha was constituted on May 16, 2000.

14. All India Whips’ Conference is organized by:
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Niti Ayog
(d) Law Ministry

14.Answer: b

The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, organises All India Whips’ Conference from time to time with the purpose of establishing suitable links among the whips of various political parties at the centre and the states/union territories who are concerned with the practical working of the legislatures to discuss matters of common interest and to evolve high standards to strengthen the institution of parliamentary democracy. Seventeen All India Whips’ Conferences have been organized so far since 1952

15. Conisder the following statement:
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is appointed by the Speaker of Loksabha
2. The procedure and the grounds for his removal from office are the same as for a Supreme Court judge
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Answer: b

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is appointed by the President. The procedure and the grounds for his removal from office are the same as for a Supreme Court judge. He is not eligible for further office under the union or a state government after he ceases to hold his office.

16. Reports of the India relating to the accounts of the union is submitted to which institution by CAG?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) President
(d) CJI

16.Answer: c

The accounts of the Union and of the states shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of the CAG, prescribe. The reports of the India relating to the accounts of the union shall be submitted to the President, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament. The reports of the CAG of India relating to the accounts of a state shall be submitted to the Governor of the state, who shall cause them to be laid before the legislature of the state. The duties, powers and conditions of service of the CAG have been specified by the Comptroller and Auditor General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971.

17. Which of the following is Constitutional Bodies:
1. Attorney General
2. Solicitor general
3. CAG
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

17. Answer: b
 The Attorney-General for India is appointed by the President of India. Any person qualified to be a judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed for the post. The duties of the Attorney General is to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, and to perform such other duties of a legal character, as may from time to time be referred or assigned to him by the President, and to discharge the functions conferred on him by or under the Constitution or any other law for the time being in force. In the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Attorney-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.
 Solicitor General: Statutory Organisation
 The Solicitor General of India is the government’s chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. The Solicitor General of India is the secondary law officer of the country, assists the Attorney-General, and is himself assisted by several Additional Solicitors General of India. Like the Attorney-General for India, the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General advise the government and appear on behalf of the Union of India in terms of the Law Officers (Terms and Conditions) Rules, 1972. However, unlike the post of Attorney-General for India, which is a Constitutional post under Article 76, the posts of the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General are merely statutory. Appointments Committee of the Cabinet appoints the Solicitor General

18. Which Institution of India ensures that the President, the Vice-President and ministers are kept informed of the major activities of all ministries/departments by means of monthly summary of their activities?
(a) PMO
(b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Cabinet Secretariat
(d) Lok Sabha Speaker

18.Answer: c
 The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. The business allocated to Cabinet Secretariat is (i) secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees; and (ii) rules of business. The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, facilitating smooth transaction of business in ministries/departments of the government by ensuring adherence to these rules.
 It assists in decision-making by ensuring interministerial coordination, ironing out differences amongst ministries/departments and evolving consensus through the instrumentality of the standing and ad hoc Committees of Secretaries. The Cabinet Secretariat ensures that the President, the Vice-President and ministers are kept informed of the major activities of all ministries/departments by means of monthly summary of their activities. Management of major crisis situations in the country and coordinating activities of various ministries in such a situation is also one of the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat.

19. Department of Official Language is under the ministry of:
(a) Human Resource Development
(b) Home Affairs
(c) Parliamentary Affairs
(d) None of the above

19. Answer: b
Ministry of Home Affairs (Grih Mantralaya)
(i) Department of Internal Security (Aantarik Suraksha Vibhag)
(ii) Department of States (Rajya Vibhag)
(iii) Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag)
(iv) Department of Home (Grih Vibhag)
(v) Department of Jammu and Kashmir Affairs (Jammu tatha Kashmir Vibhag)
(vi) Department of Border Management (Seema Prabandhan Vibhag)

20. National Authority for Chemical Weapons Convention (NACWC) was set up as an office of the:
(a) Ministry of Chemical & fertilizer
(b) Petrolium Ministry
(c) PMO
(d) Cabinet Secretariat

20. Answer: d
 The National Authority for Chemical Weapons Convention (NACWC) was set up as an office of the Cabinet Secretariat, Government of India to fulfil, on behalf of the Government of India, the obligations under the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) and to act as the national focal point for effective liaison with the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) and other state parties on matters relating to the Convention. In 2000, Chemical Weapons Convention Act was passed by the Parliament which came into force in 2005. India is one of the four non-elected Members of the Executive Committee (consisting of 41 members from all over the world) of the OPCW. India has representation in the Advisory Body on Administrative and Finance (ABAF), the Confidentiality Commission, Network Committee on Assistance and Protection, Scientific Advisory Body (SAB) and the newly created Advisory Body on Education and Outreach (ABEO) of the OPCW. India is an active collaborator with OPCW and all other state parties in implementation of the provisions of the Convention
 The National Authority for Chemical Weapons Convention (NACWC) was set up as an office of the Cabinet Secretariat, Government of India to fulfil, on behalf of the Government of India, the obligations under the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) and to act as the national focal point for effective liaison with the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) and other state parties on matters relating to the Convention. In 2000, Chemical Weapons Convention Act was passed by the Parliament which came into force in 2005. India is one of the four non-elected Members of the Executive Committee (consisting of 41 members from all over the world) of the OPCW. India has representation in the Advisory Body on Administrative and Finance (ABAF), the Confidentiality Commission, Network Committee on Assistance and Protection, Scientific Advisory Body (SAB) and the newly created Advisory Body on Education and Outreach (ABEO) of the OPCW. India is an active collaborator with OPCW and all other state parties in implementation of the provisions of the Convention

21. Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System, ‘CPGRAMS’, the operating system for Public Grievances Portal covering all the ministries/departments of Government of India is under which ministry/ Institution:
(a) Cabinet Secretariat
(b) Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Ministry Of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions
(d) PMO

21.Answer: c

22. Citizen Charter and Information and Facilitation Counters (IFCs) initiative of the government of India is Coordinated by:
(a) Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
(b) Cabinet Secretariat
(c) PMO
(d) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

22. Answer: a

Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances, Ministry Of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions

23. Which of the following authorities fall within the definition of public authority under RTI act:
1. State government
2. Central government
3. Non-government organizations substantially financed by the central government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

23. Answer c
The Act gives all the citizens the right to seek information held by any authority or body or institution of self government established or constituted by or under the Constitution; or by any other law made by the Parliament or a state legislature; or by notification issued or order made by the central government or a state government. Bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the central government or a state government and non-government organizations substantially financed by the central government or a state government also fall within the definition of public authority. The right includes inspection of work, documents and records, taking notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records, taking certified samples of material held by the public authority or held under the control of the public authority. It also includes information relating to any private body which can be accessed by the public authority under any law for the time being in force. There are some categories of information which each public authority is required to publish suo moto

24. According to Article 343 (1) of the Constitution official language of the Union is:
(a) Hindi in Devanagari script
(b) English in Roman Script
(c) Both a and b
(d) There is no official language of India

24.Answer: a
Article 343 (1) of the Constitution provides that Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the official language of the Union. Article 343 (2) also provides for continuing the use of English in official work of the Union for a period of 15 years (i.e., upto January 25, 1965) from the date of commencement of the Constitution. Article 343 (3) empowered the Parliament to provide by law for continued use of English for official purposes even after January 25, 1965. The Act also lays down under Section 3 (3) that both Hindi and English shall compulsorily be used for certain specified purpose such as resolutions, general Orders, Rules, Notifications, Administrative and other Reports, Press Communiques; Administrative and other reports and official papers to be laid before a House or the Houses of Parliament; contracts, agreements, licences, permits, tender notices and forms of tender, etc

25. Kendriya Hindi Samiti is chaired by:
(a) Cabinet Minister in charge of Home Ministry
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Secretary, Home Mnistry

25. Answer: b
The Kendriya Hindi Samiti was constituted in 1967. Chaired by Prime Minister it is the apex policy making body which lays the guidelines for the propagation and progressive use of Hindi as official language of the Union. The Committee of Parliament on official language was constituted in 1976 to periodically review the progress in the use of Hindi as the official language of the Union and to submit a report to the President

26. Consider the following statements:
1 The provision for setting up an Inter-State Council is mentioned in Article 263 of the Constitution. In pursuance of the recommendation made by the Punchhi Commission on Centre State Relations, the Inter-State Council was set up.
2. The Inter-State Council (ISC) is a recommendatory body.
3. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Council
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

26. Answer: b

The provision for setting up an Inter-State Council is mentioned in Article 263 of the Constitution. In pursuance of the recommendation made by the Sarkaria Commission on CentreState Relations, the Inter-State Council was set up in 1990. The Inter-State Council (ISC) is a recommendatory body and has been assigned the duties of investigating and discussing such subjects, in which some or all of the states or the union territories and one or more of the states have a common interest, for better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject. It also deliberates upon such other matters of general interests to the states as may be referred by the Chairman to the Council

27. Consider the following statements:
1. Zonal Councils are executive bodies.
2. Union Home Minister is the Chairman of all the zonal councils
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
27. Answer: b
 Five zonal councils viz., Northern Zonal Council, Central Zonal Council, Eastern Zonal Council, Western Zonal Council and Southern Zonal Council were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956 with the objectives of bringing out national integration; arresting the growth of acute state consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic tendencies; enabling the centre and the states to cooperate and exchange ideas and experiences; and establishing a climate of co-operation amongst the states for successful and speedy execution of development projects. (So Statutary Organisation)
 The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of all the zonal councils. The Office of the ViceChairman is held by the Chief Minister of the Member State of the respective zonal council by annual rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time. Two other ministers of each member state are also members of each Zonal Council. The Chief Secretary of the Member State function as the Secretary of respective Zonal Council by annual rotation and another officer/Development Commissioner and one officer nominated by the Planning Commission for each of the Zonal Councils as Adviser for a period of one year.

28. Discretionary powers a in matters relating to sharing of royalties between district council and state government under 6th Schedule if function of:

(a) Central Minister of Tribal Affairs
(b) President
(c) Governor
(d) State Executive

28.Answer: c
in the Sixth Schedule which applies to tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram as specified in para 20 of that schedule, discretionary powers are given to Governor in matters relating to sharing of royalties between district council and state government. The Sixth Schedule vests additional discretionary powers in Governors of Mizoram and Tripura in almost all their functions (except approving regulations for levy of taxes and money lending by non-tribals by district councils)

29. Which of the following states has bicameral system like that of Centre?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Karnataka
3. Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

29.Answer: c

For every state, there is a legislature which consists of Governor and one House or, two Houses as the case may be. In Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh, there are two Houses known as Legislative Council and Legislative Assembly. In the remaining states, there is only one House known as Legislative Assembly. Parliament may, by law, provide for abolition of an existing Legislative Council or for creation of one where it does not exist, if proposal is supported by a resolution of the Legislative Assembly concerned.

30. First Municipality council in India was set at:
(a) Chennai
(b) Kalkata
(C) Mumbai
(d) Delhi
30.Answer: A

Municipal bodies have a long history in India. The first such Municipal Corporation was set-up in the former Presidency Town of Madras in 1688; and later in Bombay and Kolkata in 1726.

31. Chief Electoral Officer of the state is appointed by:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Election Commission’
(c) State election Commission
(d) None of the above
31.Answer: b

At the state level, the election work is supervised, subject to overall control of the Commission, by the Chief Electoral Officer of the state, who is appointed by the Commission by selection from amongst senior civil servants of the state government. Field administration at the district and sub-divisional levels in India is run by the District Magistrates (Deputy Commissioners/Collectors), Sub-Divisional Magistrates, Revenue Divisional Officers, Tehsildars, etc. The Election Commission utilizes these state government officers, for election work, by designating them as District Election Officers, Electoral Registration Officers, Returning Officers, Assistant Electoral Registration Officers, Assistant Returning Officers, etc. During election time, however, they are available to the Commission, more or less, on a full time basis.

32. Consider the following statements:
1. India comprises 28 states and ten union territories
2. According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 all the provisions of the Indian Constitution except citizenship would be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
32.D

 India comprises 28 states and nine union territories. The states are: Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Tripura, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. Union territories are: Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, Jammu and Kashmir, National Capital Territory of Delhi, Ladakh, Lakshadweep and Puducherry.
 The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was enacted (MHA, SO No. 3979 (E) dated November 2, 2019) to provide for reorganisation of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir into the two union territories – one to be eponymously called Jammu and Kashmir, and the other Ladakh. October 31, 2019 was notified as the appointed day for all purposes of the Act.
 A bill for the Act was introduced in the Rajya Sabha, on 5 August 2019 and was passed on that day. It was passed by the Lok Sabha on 6 August 2019.
 It received the President’s assent on 9 August 2019. The introduction of the bill was preceded by a presidential order under Article 370 of the Indian constitution that revoked Jammu and Kashmir’s special status, and mandating, inter alia, that all the provisions of the Indian Constitution would be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.
 Accordingly, the “State Legislature including Legislative Council of the State” has been abolished and shall from now onwards be construed as “Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir”.
33. Consider the following statements w.r.tp Citizenship Act as amended by the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019:
1. The amended Act makes foreign illegal migrants of six religious communities i.e., Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi and Christian from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Srilanka and Pakistan eligible for Indian citizenship
2. Act is applicable to those who have taken shelter in India due to persecution on grounds of religion or fear of such persecution in their countries and have entered into India on or before December 31, 2019
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. D
 The Citizenship Act was amended by the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 which was passed by the Parliament on December 11, 2019 and received the President’s assent on December 12, 2019. The amended Act makes foreign illegal migrants of six religious communities i.e., Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi and Christian from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan eligible for Indian citizenship.
 It is applicable to those who have taken shelter in India due to persecution on grounds of religion or fear of such persecution in their countries and have entered into India on or before December 31, 2014.
 On acquiring citizenship, such migrants shall be deemed to be Indian citizens from the date of their entry into India and all legal proceedings regarding their status as illegal migrants or their citizenship will be closed. The Third Schedule to the Act has been amended to make applicants belonging to the said communities from the three countries eligible for citizenship by naturalisation, if they can establish their residency in India for five years instead of the previous requirement of eleven years.
34. Citizenship Act as amended by the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 is not applicable to:
1. Meghalaya
2. Nagaland
3. Jammu & Kashmir
4. Tripura
5. Sikkim
Code:
(a) 1 ,2 and 3 only
(b) 1,2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above

34.c
 The provisions of the Act, however, do not apply to tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura as included in the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution and the areas where ‘The Inner Line Permit’ is applicable including the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Manipur.

35. Android based mobile app through which Citizens can access pan India e-Gov services ranging from Central to Local Government bodies and other citizen centric services. this application is:
(a) Cvigil
(b)UMANG
(c) CPGRAM
(d) None of the above

35. B

 A mobile app was launched in 2015 which was for android based mobile through which people could lodge and track their public grievance.
 This has been further developed to make it more users friendly and has now been integrated with the Unified Mobile Application for New-Age Governance (UMANG).
 UMANG intends to provide major services offered by Central and State Government departments, Local bodies and other utility services from private organizations. It provides a unified approach where citizens can install one application to avail multiple government services.
 UMANG is a Digital India initiative of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).