1. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?
(a)Andhra
(b) Gandhara
(c)Kalinga
(d) Magadha
1. A
2. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:
1.The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
2.Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3.Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)All three
(d)None
2.B
3. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as
(a)capital cities
(b)ports
(c)centres of iron-and-steel making
(d)shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
3.B
4. Which one of the following explains the practice of Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?
(a)Kings employing women bodyguards
(b)Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
(c)Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals
(d)A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
4.D
5. Consider the following dynasties :
1.Hoysala
2.Gahadavala
3.Kakatiya
4.Yadava
How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c)Only three
(d)None
5.D
6. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:
Literary work Author
1.Devichandragupta : Bilhana
2.Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri
3.Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna
4.Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
6.B
7. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.”
The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
(a)Buddhism
(b)Jainism
(c)Shaivism
(d)Vaishnavism
7.B
8. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?
(a)Devaraya I
(b) Mallikarjuna
(c)Vira Vijaya
(d)Virupaksha
8.A
9. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to FB Portuguese?
(a)Ahmad Shah
(b)Mahmud Begarha
(c)Bahadur Shah
(d)Muhammad Shah
9.C
10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
(a)The Regulating Act
(b)The Pitt’s India Act
(c)The Charter Act of 1793
(d)The Charter Act of 1833
10.D
11. In essence, what does Due Process of Law’ mean?
(a)The principle of natural justice
(b)The procedure established by law
(c)Fair application of law
(d)Equality before law
11.C
The concept of due process originated in English Common Law.1 The rule that individuals shall not be deprived of life, liberty, or property without notice and an opportunity to defend themselves predates written constitutions and was widely accepted in England.2 The MAGNA CARTA, an agreement signed in 1215 that defined the rights of English subjects against the king, is an early example of a constitutional guarantee of due process.3 That document includes a clause that declares, “No free man shall be seized, or imprisoned … except by the lawful judgment of his peers, or by the law of the land”. This concept of the law of the land was later transformed into the phrase “due process of law.”
12. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II :
In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
12.A
STATEMENT 1 is correct: ‘Prisons’/’persons detained therein’ is a “State-List” subject under Entry 4 of List II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. Administration and management of prisons and prisoners is the responsibility of respective State Governments who are competent to take appropriate action in this regard. However, given the significance of prisons in the Criminal Justice System, the Ministry of Home Affairs has been providing regular guidance and support to the States and UTs on diverse issues relating to prison administration.
Statement 2 is also correct and correctly explains 1
12.A
13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
(a)It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b)It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c)It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d)It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
13.C
• first function of a constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
• The second function of a constitution is to specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted
• o the third function of a constitution is to set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that government may never trespass them
Source: NCERT
14. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
(a)1st Amendment
(b)42nd Amendment
(c)44th Amendment
(d)86th Amendment
14.A
During the last fifteen months of the working of the Constitution, certain difficulties have been brought to light by judicial decisions and pronouncements specially in regard to the chapter on fundamental rights. The citizen’s right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by article 19(1)(a) has been held by some courts to be so comprehensive as not to render a person culpable even if he advocates murder and other crimes of violence. In other countries with written constitutions, freedom of speech and of the press is not regarded as debarring the State from punishing or preventing abuse of this freedom. The citizen’s right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business conferred by article 19(1)(g) is subject to reasonable restrictions which the laws of the State may impose “in the interests of general public”. While the words cited are comprehensive enough to cover any scheme of nationalisation which the State may undertake, it is desirable to place the matter beyond doubt by a clarificatory addition to article 19(6). Another article in regard to which unanticipated difficulties have arisen is article 31. The validity of agrarian reform measures passed by the State Legislatures in the last three years has, in spite of the provisions of clauses (4) and (6) of article 31, formed the subject-matter of dilatory litigation, as a result of which the implementation of these important measures, affecting large numbers of people, has been held up.
15. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
1.The National Commission for Backward Classes
2.The National Human Rights Commission
3.The National Law Commission
4.The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
4.How many the of above are constitutional bodies?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)Only three
(d)All four
15.A
Only National Commission for Backward Classes
16. Consider the following statements:
1.If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2.Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3.When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)All three
(d)None
16. D
• Statement 1 Incorrect: If the election of a person as President or Vice President is declared void by the Supreme court, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice President, as the case may be, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration
• Statement II is incorrect: The election of a person as President or Vice President shall not be called in question on the ground of the existence of any vacancy for whatever reason among the members of the electoral college electing him
• Statement III is incorrect: The constitution has not prescribed any time limit within which the President has to take decision with regard to a bill reserved by Governor for his consideration.
17. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1.When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2.When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3.In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)All three
(d)None
17.C
•
- Statement I is right
- II is right: Once passed by Lok Sabha, it goes to Rajya Sabha along with Speaker’s certificate that it is a Money Bill for its recommendations. However, Rajya Sabha can neither reject nor amend such Bill but can only recommend changes in the Bill.
- Statement III is right
Difference Between Financial Bill And Money Bill
- Money bills have been covered under article 110 of the constitution whereas Finance bill is covered under article 117 (1) and (3) of the constitution of India.
- The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the money bill but it has the power to amend or reject the finance bill.
- Whether a bill is money bill has to be decided by the speaker whereas no such prior approval is required to classify a finance bill.
- Money bill and finance bill (1) can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha whereas a Finance Bill (2) can be introduced both in Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.
- To resolve a deadlock, the President can summon a joint sitting of Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha in case if it is finance bill, however no such provision is made in case of a money bill.
•
18. Consider the following statements:
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’
1.the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2.Hunting is not allowed in such area
3.People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
4.People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)Only three
(d)All four
18.*A (Doubt)
• Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest Incorrect
• People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce Incorrect
• Incorrect :People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
19. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ India, consider in the following statements:
1.Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2.The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3.The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)All three
(d)None
19. B
• Statement I is correct: The Fifth Schedule under Article 244(1) of Constitution defines “Scheduled Areas” as such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas after consultation with the Governor of that State.
• Statement II is correct: The largest administrative unit forming the scheduled areas has been the district and the lowest the cluster of villages in the block. Most of the districts form scheduled areas only partially.
• Statement III is incorrect: Report by the Governor
20. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II :Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
20. C
Statement I is correct but in Article 335efficiency has not been defined
21. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
Statement-II:
Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
21. C
• Statement I is correct
• Statement II is incorrect: Low-enriched uranium (LEU) has a lower than 20% concentration of 235U; for instance, in commercial LWR, the most prevalent power reactors in the world, uranium is enriched to 3 to 5% 235U. Slightly enriched uranium (SEU) has a concentration of under 2% 235U
22. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II :Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
22.C
• Statement I correct as marsupial only in Australia & America
• Directly from Class notes
•
23. Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
(a)The International Conservation of Nature Union for nature
(b)The United Nations Environment Programme
(c)The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
(d)The World Wide Fund for Nature
23.A
24. Consider the following fauna:
1.Lion-tailed Macaque
2.Malabar Civet
3.Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)All three
(d)None
24.B
• Lion-tailed Macaque : is diurnal, meaning it is active exclusively in daylight hours.
• Malabar civet is considered nocturnal
• The sambar is a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent. They are nocturnal or crepuscular, and generally consistent in colour around the body, and can vary from yellowish-brown to almost dark grey.
25. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
(a)Butterflies
(b)Dragonflies
(c)Honeybees
(d)Wasps
25.C
• Honey bees use a complex form of spatial referential communication. Their “waggle dance” communicates the direction, distance, and quality of a resource to nestmates by encoding celestial cues, retinal optic flow, and relative food value into motion and sound within the nest.
26. Consider the following statements:
1.Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
2.Some mushrooms have psycho- active properties.
3.Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4.Some mushrooms have biolumi-nescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)Only three
(d)All four
26.D
• Mushrooms act as antibacterial, immune system enhancer and cholesterol lowering agents; additionally, they are important sources of bioactive compounds.
• The effects of psilocybin Mushrooms are generally similar to those of LSD
• Mushrooms were found to be promising producers of antifeedant compounds as well as insecticidal proteins
• Bioluminescent fungi typically sprout on decaying wood and are capable of digesting lignin in plant debris. Most of the bioluminescent fungi belong to a genus called Mycena (bonnet mushrooms)
27. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :
1.They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2.They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3.They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
27.C
• Indian palm squirrels are solitary and only come together during the breeding season. They are active during the day spending their time both in trees and on the ground. Indian palm squirrels are busy and fairly vocal creatures, producing a cry that sounds like “chip chip chip” when danger is present. They are usually very protective of their food sources, often guarding and defending them from birds and other squirrels. Unlike some other species of squirrel, Indian palm squirrel do not hibernate. They are opportunists in urban areas and can be easily tamed and trained to accept food from humans.
• Nesting mostly in self-dug burrows underground, but also make dens in rocky outcroppings and in cavities at the bottom of trees.Ground squirrels nest on the ground, digging burrows, a system of tunnels underground, to live in. They hibernate during the winter in these underground burrows.
28. Consider the following statements:
1.Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
2.Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
28. C
Think about Tardigrades which can live in extreme conditions answer will follow
29. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
(a)Fishing cat
(b)Orangutan
(c)Otter
(d)Sloth bear
29.B
• As with the chimpanzees, orangutans use tools made from branches and leaves to scratch, scrape, wipe, sponge, swat, fan, hook, probe, scoop, pry, chisel, hammera
30. Consider the following:
1.Aerosols
2.Foam agents
3.Fire retardants
4.Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)Only three
(d) All four
30.D
• Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are greenhouse gases (GHGs) commonly used by federal agencies in a wide variety of applications, including refrigeration, air-conditioning (AC), building insulation, fire extinguishing systems, and aerosols
• Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), which are often used in foam blowing agents
• The new synthetic lubricants have miscibility with HFC re- frigerants, such as HFC-l34a, similar to that of mineral oils with CFCs
31. Consider the following statements:
1.Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
2.Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
3.Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
31.B
• Statement I is correct: Main source of water for Wular Lake is River Jhelum.
• Statement II is incorrect: Location of the Kolleru lake between the Krishna and Godavari deltas
• Statement III is correct: It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to meandering of Gandak river, a tributary of Ganga,
32. Consider the following pairs:
PortWell known as
1.Kamarajar Port:First major port in India registered as a company
2.Mundra Port: Largest privately owned port in India
3.Visakhapatnam:Largest container port in India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)Only one pair
(b)Only two pairs
(c)All three pairs
(d)None of the pairs
32. B
• Statement I is correct: Kamarajar Port Limited, formerly Ennore Port, is located on the Coromandel Coast, Chennai about 18 km north of Chennai Port. It is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company.
• Statement II is correct: Mundra Port is the India’s first private port and largest container port, located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat.
• Statement III incorrect: Nhava Sheva, JNPT is the largest container port in India
33. Consider the following trees:
1.Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
2.Mahua (Madhuca indica)
3.Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above are deciduous trees?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
33.B
• Statement I is incorrect: Jackfruit or Artocarpus heterophyllus is a tropical evergreen tree that grows up to 20 m in height.
• Statement II is correct: The Mahua tree, M. latifolia is an economically important tropical deciduous tree
• Statement III correct: teak, (genus Tectona grandis), large deciduous tree of the family Verbenaceae,
34. Consider the following statements:
1.India has more arable area than China.
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
3.The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
34.A
• Statement I is correct: India has the largest cropland of any country at 179.8 million hectares, compared with 167.8 million in the US and 165.2 million in China
• Statement II is incorrect: China stands with the largest irrigated area (69.1 as compared 67 million hectares in India)
• Statement III is incorrect: It has been generally recognized that China’s yield of grain production is higher than that of India’s
35. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
(a)Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b)Marakkanam Salt Pans
(c)Naupada Swamp
(d)Rann of Kutch
35.
36. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
(a)Aluminium
(b)Copper
(c)Iron
(d)Titanium
36.D
37. About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
(a)Argentina
(b)Botswana
(c)the Democratic Republic of the Congo
(d)Kazakhstan
37.C
38. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
(a) Cameroon
(b) Nigeria
(c) South Sudan
(d) Uganda
38.A
39. Consider the following statements:
1. Amarkantak Hills at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
2.Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
3.Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)All three
(d)None
• Statement I is incorrect Amarkantak is located in the Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh, at an elevation of 1065 metres, near the confluence of the Vindhya and Satpura
• Statement I is incorrect Biligirirangan Hills in Karnataka
• Statement III is incorrect :Seshachalam : in eastern Ghat
40. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements :
1.East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
2.Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
3.Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)All three
(d)None
40.D
• Statement I incorrect: The East-West corridor of the Golden Quadrilateral connects Silchar and Porbandar cities in India.
• Statement II incorrect Trilateral Highway under construction will connect Moreh with Mae Sot in Thailand via Mandalay in Myanmar.
• Statement III incorrect: BCIM economic corridor aims to connect Kolkata with Kunming, capital of the Yunnan provinc
41. Consider the following statements:
Interest income from the deposits (InvITs) distributed to their investors is in Infrastructure Investment Trusts exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II :
InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Recon- struction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I incorrect is but Statement-II is correct
41. D
• Statement I is incorrect: The dividend and Interest income from InvITs is completely taxable as per the slab rate of the investor
42. Consider the following statements :
Statement-1: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II : Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
42.A
Interest rate hikes were done and that was due to check inflation because of PENT Up demand
43. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
43.C
Statement-1 Correct
Statement-II incorrect as Carbon markets transfer resources from the state to Market
44. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization?
(a)Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
(b)Oversight of settlement and payment systems
(c)Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
(d) Regulating the functions of Non- banking Financial Institutions
44.A
• Sterilization most frequently involves the purchase or sale of financial assets by a central bank and is designed to offset the effect of foreign exchange intervention.
• Sterilized interventions involve the sale or purchase of foreign currency assets and an open market operation involving the purchase or sale of government
45. Consider the following markets:
1.Government Bond Market
2.Call Money Market
3.Treasury Bill Market
4.Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)Only three
(d)All four
45.B
• Capital markets are where savings and investments are channeled between suppliers and those in need. Suppliers are people or institutions with capital to lend or invest and typically include banks and investors. Those who seek capital in this market are businesses, governments, and individuals. Capital markets are composed of primary and secondary markets. The most common capital markets are the stock market and the bond market. They seek to improve transactional efficiencies by bringing suppliers together with those seeking capital and providing a place where they can exchange securities.
46. Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?
(a)Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
(b)Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
(c)Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
(d)A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process commercial production
46.B
Collective action : Small Farmers Large Field (SFLF)” to overcome the disadvantages faced by millions of small and marginal farmers due to diseconomies of scale and lack of bargaining power in the supply chain. This model is participatory and flexible and allows small farmers to benefit from achieving economies of scale by organizing themselves into groups and synchronizing and harmonizing selected operations.
47. Consider the following statements:
1.The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
2.Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
3.Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)All three
(d)None
47.C
• Statement I is true
• In India, niger is grown on an area of 2.61 lakh ha mainly during kharif. However, in Odisha it is a rabi crop
• tribal population uses niger seed oil for cooking, the press cake post oil-extraction as livestock feed,
48. Consider the investments in the following assets:
1.Brand recognition
2.Inventory
3.Intellectual property
4.Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)Only three
(d)All four
47.C
• A tangible asset is an asset that has physical substance. Examples include inventory, a building, rolling stock, manufacturing equipment or machinery, and office furniture
• All other three are Intangible
49. Consider the following:
1.Demographic performance
2.Forest and ecology
3.Governance reforms
4.Stable government
5.Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
(a)Only two
(b)Only three
(c)Only four
(d) All five
49.B
Horizontal Devolution Criteria
• Population:
• Area
• Forest and Ecology
• Income distance
• Demographic Performance:
• Tax Effort
50. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
1.Affordable housing
2.Mass rapid transport
3.Health care
4.Renewable energy
On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)Only three
(d)All four
50.D
• In February 2023, the UNOPS Executive Board decided to phase out the former Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative following a series of management failures
• S3i seed-funds large-scale affordable housing, renewable energy, and health infrastructure projects
• https://www.unops.org/expertise/infrastructure
51. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
1.Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2.The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the maintenance of internal security.
3.To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c)All three
(d)None
• Statement I is incorrect: Home Guards are State subject. Pay and allowance of home guards are governed by the Home Guards Acts and Rules of respective States/UTs. There is no Central Act governing the Home Guards in the country
• The Home Guard of India is a volunteer force tasked to be an auxiliary to the Indian police
• Statement III correct: Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan ( 4Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.) and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, guarding of VA/VPs and lines of communication in vulnerable area at the time of external aggression.
52. With reference to India, consider the following pairs :
ActionThe Act under
which it is covered
1.Unauthorized wearing The Official Secrets
of police or military Act, 1923
uniforms
2.Knowingly misleading The Indian Evi-
or otherwise inter- dence Act, 1872
fering with a police
officer or military
officer when engaged
in their duties
3.Celebratory gunfire The Arms (Amend- which can endanger ment) Act, 2019
the personal safety of
others
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
52.B
• Statement I is correct: Unauthorized wearing of police uniform not official secret act
Section 6 of Oficial Secret act
- Unauthorized wearing of police uniform not official secret act .
- Unauthorised use of uniforms, falsification of reports, forgery, personation, and false documents.—(1) If any person for the purpose of gaining admission or of assisting any other person to gain admission to a prohibited place or for any other purpose prejudicial to the safety of the State— (a) uses or wears, without lawful authority, any naval, military, air force, police or other official uniform, or any uniform so nearly, resembling the same as to be calculated to deceive, or falsely represents himself to be a person who is or has been entitled to use or wear any such uniform; or
• Statement III is INcorrect : This is true for Official secret act 1923
• Statement III is correct: In a bid to curb this menace, the Centre had amended The Arms Act in December 2019 and made celebratory firing even with licensed guns at public gatherings, religious places, marriage or other functions a criminal offence attracting two years’ imprisonment and fine. But this information could not be properly publicised due to Covid-19 pandemic.
53. Consider the following pairs:
Regions oftenReason for being
mentioned in newsin news
1.North Kivu and Ituri: War between
Armenia and
Azerbaijan
2.Nagorno-Karabakh:Insurgency in Mozambique
3.Kherson and Dispute between
Zaporizhzhia Israel and Lebanon
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
53, D
Class notes: https://t.me/THECOREIAS/5747
54. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II : The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
54. C
First is correct: The Arab Peace Initiative also known as the Saudi Initiative is a 10 sentence proposal for an end to the Arab–Israeli conflict that was endorsed by the Arab League in 2002 at the Beirut Summit and re-endorsed at the 2007 and at the 2017 Arab League summits
II incorrect: The Israeli government under Ariel Sharon rejected the initiative as a “non-starter”[8] because it required Israel to withdraw to pre-June 1967 borders
55. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:
1.Major Dhyan Chand: For the most
Khel Ratna Awardspectacular and
outstanding per- formance by a sportsperson over
period of last four years
2.Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
3.Dronacharya Award: To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons
or teams
4.Rashtriya Khel:To recognize the
Protsahan Puraskar contribution made
by sportspersons even after
retirement
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)Only one
(b)Only two
(c) Only three
(d)All four
55.B
• The Khel Ratna is given for the spectacular and most outstanding performances by a sportsperson over a period of the previous four years.
• Arjuna Awards, instituted in 1961, are given to players who have exhibited good performance consistently for the previous four years at the International level and have shown qualities of leadership, sportsmanship and a sense of discipline. The Awardees are given a statuette, a certificate, ceremonial dress and a cash prize of Rs. 5.00 lakh.
• Dronacharya Awards, instituted in 1985, are given to honour eminent Coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams and enabled them to achieve outstanding results in International competitions. Dronachaya Awards are given in two categories (i) Regular Category (ii) Lifetime Category. The Awardees are given a statuette of Guru Dronacharya, a certificate, ceremonial dress and a cash prize of Rs. 5.00 lakh.
• With a view to recognizing the contribution made to sports development by entities other than sportspersons and coaches, Government has instituted a new award entitle Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar from the year 2009, which has four categories (i) Identification and nurturing of budding/young talent (ii) Encouragement to sports through Corporate Social Responsibility (iii) Employment of sportspersons and sports welfare measures (iv) Sports for Development. The awards consist of a certificate and a trophy in each of above four categories. There is no cash award.
• Dhyanchand Awards Dhyanchand Awards for Life Time Achievements in Sports and Games, Instituted in 2002, are given to honour those sportspersons who have contributed to sports by their performance and continue to contribute to promotion of sports even after their retirement from active sporting career. The awardees are given a statuette, a certificate, ceremonial dress and a cash prize of Rs. 5.00 lakh.
56. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 :
1.It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2.The official mascot was named Thambi’.
3.The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4.The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
56.B
• This is the first time the Chess Olympiad is being hosted in India and the first in Asia after 30 years.
• Say hello to Thambi, the mascot of Chess Olympiad 2022
• The trophy for the winning team at the Women’s Chess Olympiad is named the Vera Menchik Cup in her honour
• The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup
57. Consider the following pairs:
Area of conflict Country where it
mentioned in news is located
1. Donbas Syria
2. Kachin Ethiopia
3. Tigray North Yemen
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
57.D
https://t.me/THECOREIAS/5747
58.In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?
(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
(d) Successful coups
58.C
- The recent spate of coups in Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan has sparked a flurry of media attention and concern this may also be correct but because of the word years and great green wall initiative C should be most appropriate
59. Consider the following heavy industries:
1.Fertilizer plants
2.Oil refineries
3. Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how. many of the above industries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
59.C
60. Consider the following statements about G-20:
1.The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
2.Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
60.C
Digital Public Infrastructure is one of the key priorities during India’s G20 Presidency
61. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
(a)archaeological excavations
(b)establishment of English Press in Colonial India
(c)establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d)construction of railways in Colonial India
61.A
62. Consider the following pairs:
Site Well known for
1.Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine
2.Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine
3.Sittanavasal: Jain cave shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
62.B
63. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-II : It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
63.A
• The National Handloom Day is observed annually on 7th August to honour the handloom weavers in the country and also highlight India’s handloom industry
• The Union Government had declared 7th of August as the National Handloom Day in July 2015 with the objective of generating awareness about the importance of the handloom industry to the socio economic development of the country. August 7 was chosen as the National Handloom Day to commemorate the Swadeshi Movement which was launched on this day in 1905 in Calcutta Town Hall to protest against the partition of Bengal by the British Government. The movement had aimed at reviving domestic products and production processes.
https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/entrepreneurship/important-days/national-handloom-day#:~:text=August%207%20was%20chosen%20as,Bengal%20by%20the%20British%20Government
64. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement-I : One of the the National standard sizes of Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
64.D
65. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
65.C
On 26th November, 1949 some section of constitution adopted
66. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II : Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is incorrect
66.C
67. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council’.
Statement-II : The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct
67.C
• The Trade and Technology Council is a transatlantic political body which serves as a diplomatic forum to coordinate technology and trade policy between the United States and European Union. It is composed of ten working groups, each focusing on specific policy areas.
• The TTC’s overall objective is to promote U.S. and EU competitiveness and prosperity and the spread of democratic, market-oriented values by increasing transatlantic trade and investment in products and services of emerging technology, strengthening our technological and industrial leadership, boosting innovation, and protecting and promoting critical and emerging technologies and infrastructure. We plan to cooperate on the development and deployment of new technologies based on our shared democratic values, including respect for human rights, that encourage compatible standards and regulations.
68. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II : Many local companies and foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
68.* (Doubt)
Statement I: In 2020 India’s share in global exports was 3.5 % and imports was 3.2 %.
Statement II is correct
69. Consider the following statements:
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that
1.limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
2.makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
69.A
• The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a set of rules designed to ensure that countries in the European Union pursue sound public finances and coordinate their fiscal policies.
70. Consider the following statements:
1.Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
2.The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d)None
70. *
• Statement I is incorrect
• Statement II is incorrect : In the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration, UN Member States agree on common goals in managing international migration in all its dimensions. The non-binding Compact encompasses 23 objectives
• The representative of Chile said that some elements of the Global Compact are not entirely in line with his country’s immigration policy. For instance, it fails to distinguish between regular and irregular migration; it also promotes the entry of vulnerable migrants who are not recognized as refugees or asylum-seekers. The agreement affects the sovereignty right of every State to manage its borders, which for Chile is an internal matter, without prejudice to its international obligations. Chile will abstain from endorsing the agreement, given that it is not fully in the country’s interests.
• Statement III not clear in objective: https://refugeesmigrants.un.org/sites/default/files/180713_agreed_outcome_global_compact_for_migration.pdf
71. Consider the following countries:
1.Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
Countries share a land border with How many of the above-mentioned Ukraine?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five
71.A
Romania & Hungary
72. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
(b)Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
(c)Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
(d)Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
72.C
Water Vapour a green house gas which absorb radiation.
73. 13. Consider the following statements:
Statements-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statements-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
73.D
Soil in tropical not rich in nutrients
74. Consider the following statements:
Statements-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statements-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
74. D
The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during winter than in summer
75. Consider the following statements:
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
75.C
P waves Longitudnal & S waves : Transverse
76. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements:
1. None of them uses seawater.
2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
3. None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
76.D
77. “Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
a. Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
b. Converting crop residues into packing material
c. Producing biodegradable plastics
d. Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass
77. A
• GENE Drive was in news
78. Consider the following activities:
1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
78.C
Basalt is the best rock for capturing CO2, and many mines already produce dust as a byproduct, so stockpiles already exist
79. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?
(a)Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
(b)Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
(c)Using air-borne devices to collect samples from moving blood animals
(d)Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
79.A
Dr Clare’s team adapted an existing sample-collection method by pumping air
80. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?
(a)Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
(b)Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues
(c)Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
(d)Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
80.A
81. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:
1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2.Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3.It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4.Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
81.B
• Statement 1 is incorrect: JananiSurakshaYojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NHM).
• Statement 2 is correct: JSY is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neo-natal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among the poor pregnant women.
• Statement 3 is correct: JananiSurakshaYojana (JSY), a demand promotion and conditional cash transfer scheme for promoting institutional delivery.
• Statement 4 is incorrect:JananiShishuSurakshaKaryakaram (JSSK) has been launched with the objective to eliminate out of pocket expenses for both pregnant women and sick infants accessing public health institution for treatment.
• The JSSK entitlements for pregnant women and sick infantsupto one year of age is operational across all states, resulting in considerable reduction in out of pocket expenditures.
82. Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:
1.It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
2.It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child- birth.
3.It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4.It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given. above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
82.C
• Statement 1 is incorrect:Prophylactic Iron Folic Acid Supplementation to all six beneficiaries age group – pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
• Statement 2 is correct:It runs a campaign for promotion and monitoring of delayed clamping of the umbilical cord for at least 3 minutes (or until cord pulsations cease) for newborns across all health facilities will be carried out for improving the infant’s iron reserves up to 6 months after birth. Simultaneously, all birth attendants should make an effort to ensure early initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour of birth.
• Statement 3 is correct:Bi-annual mass deworming for children in the age groups between 1-19 years is carried out on designated dates – 10th February and 10th August every year under National Deworming Day (NDD) programme.
• Statement 4 is correct:It addressing non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets, with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
83. Consider the following statements:
1.Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
2.Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
83.A/ C
Interpretation of second may cause change in answer but according to us A
• Carbon fibres are widely used in modern industrial applications as they are high-strength, light in weight and more reliable than other materials. The increase in the usage of carbon fibres has led to the production of a significant amount of waste. This has become a global issue because valuable carbon fibre waste ends up in landfill
• One of the challenges is that carbon fibre cannot simply be melted and reshaped using moulds, much like aluminium
84. Consider the following actions:
1.Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
2.Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive
3.Detection of the tilt of the smart- phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode
In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
84.C
• Accelerometers are devices that measure the vibration, or acceleration of motion of a structure. They have a transducer that converts mechanical force caused by vibration or a change in motion, into an electrical current using the piezoelectric effect.
85. With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:
1.Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
2.Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
3.Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
85.
• A biofilter is a bed of media on which microorganisms attach and grow to form a biological layer called biofilm. Biofiltration is thus usually referred to as a fixed–film process.
• Biofilters convert ammonia nitrogen to nitrite nitrogen and then to the less toxic nitrate nitrogen for the fish
• 3rd correct as phosphorus as nutrient required for bones of fishesh
86. Consider the following pairs:
Objects in Description
space
1.CepheidsGiant clouds of dust and gas in space
2.Nebulae Stars which brighten and
dim periodically
3.PulsarsNeutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
86.D
• A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space
• Cepheids, also called Cepheid Variables, are stars which brigthen and dim periodically
• Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars that blast out pulses of radiation at regular intervals ranging from seconds to milliseconds. So they are neutron star but given definition in question is of Neutron star not of Pulsars
87. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Israel
(d) Japan
87.D
88. Consider the following statements:
1.Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
88.D
89. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:
1.Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2.Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3.There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
89.C
90. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:
1.It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2.It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3.It can be used in the hydrogen. fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
90.C
91. Consider the following statements with reference to India :
1.According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006′, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between `15 crore and `25 crore.
2.All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
91.B
After 14 years since the MSME Development Act came into existence in 2006, a revision in MSME definition was announced in the Atmnirbhar Bharat package on 13th May, 2020. As per this announcement, the definition of Micro manufacturing and services units was increased to Rs. 1 Crore of investment and Rs. 5 Crore of turnover. The limit of small unit was increased to Rs. 10 Crore of investment and Rs 50 Crore of turnover. Similarly, the limit of medium unit was increased to Rs. 20 Crore of investment and Rs. 100 Crore of turnover. The Government of India on 01.06.2020 decided for further upward revision of the MSME Definition. For medium Enterprises, now it will be Rs. 50 Crore of investment and Rs. 250 Crore of turnover.
Option 2 is correct: The Government has taken measures for easing access to credit for MSMEs. As reported by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) some of the measures taken by RBI for improving flow of credit to MSME sector are as under:
92. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:
1.It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2.A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time- frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
92.C
93. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to
(a)the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
(b)an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
(c)a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
(d)a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
93.D
94. Consider the following statements:
1.The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2.In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3.The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
94.B
95. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II : Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
95.B
96. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: According to the United Nations’ World Water Development Report, 2022′, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
96.C
https://reliefweb.int/report/world/united-nations-world-water-development-report-2022-groundwater-making-invisible-visible?gclid=Cj0KCQjw98ujBhCgARIsAD7QeAiecvcFr_E6F5HSaIF6IDXgOVc4WGU4BwJ8Yi2XwyKmblzVTVfAU6caAj0OEALw_wcB
97. Consider the following statements :
1.According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2.The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3.According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Statement 1 Correct
Statement 2 Correct : https://www.constitutionofindia.net/articles/article-22-protection-against-arrest-and-detention-in-certain-cases/#:~:text=Article%2022%2C%20Constitution%20of%20India,legal%20practitioner%20of%20his%20choice.
Statement 3: Incorrect DEPARTURE FROM THE GENERAL RULE OF EVIDENCE- POTA makes departure from the general rule of evidence as u/s 32 the confessions made to a high ranking police officer can be used as evidence against the maker whereas the general rule of evidence is that confessions made to a police officer or in police custody are not to be used as evidence against the maker.
98. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news. in the recent past for its very severe famine?
(a) Angola
(b) Costa Rica
(c) Ecuador
(d) Somalia
98.D
99. Consider the following statements:
1.In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2.The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
99.c
100. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :
1.The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2.Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3.The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
100.A
• Statement 1 Incorrect
• Statement II incorrect
• Incorrect: value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
• Statement 4 Correct