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1. Lopinavir-Ritonavir frequently seen in the news recently is used widely for controlling which disease?
(a) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Leprosy
(d) Ebola Virus
Answer-a
Explanation-
Lopinavir-Ritonavir
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has issued revised guidelines on the ‘Clinical Management of COVID-19’. The Ministry has recommended use of drug combinations Lopinavir and Ritonavir (sold under the brand name Kaletra) depending upon the severity of the condition of a person having coronavirus infection.
The use of this drug combination is suggested by an expert committee comprising doctors from the All India Institutes of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), experts from National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) and World Health Organization (WHO).
Lopinavir-Ritonavir is recommended for high-risk groups of patients aged above 60 who are suffering from diabetes mellitus, renal failure, chronic lung disease and are immuno-compromised.
Lopinavir-Ritonavir is used widely for controlling Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection.
However, the use of Lopinavir-Ritonavir is also associated with significant adverse events which many times have led to discontinuation of therapy.
There is no current evidence from randomized controlled trials to recommend any specific treatment for suspected or confirmed COVID-19 patients.
No specific antivirals are recommended for treatment of those suffering from respiratory ailment due to lack of adequate evidence from medical literature.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/coronavirus-union-health-ministry-recommends-anti-hiv-drugs/article31094466.ece
2. Consider the following statements with respect to the Solar Charkha Mission.
1. The Solar Charkha Mission is a Ministry of Micro Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME) initiative launched in 2020
2. The scheme envisages setting up of Clusters which would mean a focal village and other surrounding villages in a radius of 8 to 10 kilometers.
3. It aims to ensure inclusive growth by generation of employment, especially for women and youth and sustainable development through solar charkha cluster in rural areas.
4. The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is implemented this programme.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
Answer-b
Explanation-
Solar Charkha Mission
The Solar Charkha Mission is a Ministry of Micro Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME) initiative launched during June 2018.
The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) would implement the programme.
Background
A pilot project on Solar Charkha was implemented at Khanwa village, Nawada District of Bihar in 2016.
Based on the success of the pilot project, Government of India has accorded approval to set up 50 such clusters with a budget of Rs. 550 Crore for 2018-19 and 2019-20.
The scheme is envisaged to generate direct employment nearly to one lakh persons in the approved Fifty (50) clusters.
Scheme Objectives
The objectives of the Scheme are as follows:
1. To ensure inclusive growth by generation of employment, especially for women and youth, and sustainable development through solar charkha clusters in rural areas.
2. To boost rural economy and help in arresting migration from rural to urban areas.
3. To leverage low-cost, innovative technologies and processes for sustenance
Project Coverage
The target is to cover 50 solar clusters across the country, whereby approx. 1,00,000 artisans/beneficiaries are to be covered under the various scheme components.
The scheme shall be implemented in all States of India.
The geographical distribution of the clusters throughout the country, with at least 10% located in the North Eastern Region (NER), J&K and hilly states, will also be kept in view.
Special focus will be given to 117 aspirational districts for soliciting project proposals under the scheme.
The scheme envisages setting up of Solar Charkha Clusters which would mean a focal village and other surrounding villages in a radius of 8 to 10 kilometers. Further, such a cluster will have 200 to 2042 beneficiaries (spinners, weavers, stitches and other skilled artisans).
Each spinner will be given two charkhas of 10 spindles each. On an average, it is considered that such cluster will have about 1000 charkhas. A cluster with full capacity will provide direct employment to 2042 artisans.
https://www.kviconline.gov.in/msc/index.jsp
3. Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill 2019.
1. The Bill seeks to repeal the Indian Medicine Central Council Act, 1970 and provide for a medical education system.
2. The Bill also proposes a National Teachers’ Eligibility Test for postgraduates of each discipline of Indian System of Medicine who wish to take up teaching that particular discipline as a profession.
3. Under the Bill, the central government will constitute an Advisory Council for Indian System of Medicine.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer-d
Explanation-
National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill 2019
RajyaSabha passed the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill 2019. The Bill seeks to repeal the Indian Medicine Central Council Act, 1970 and provide for a medical education system which ensures: (i) availability of adequate and high quality medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine, (ii) adoption of the latest medical research by medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine, (iii) periodic assessment of medical institutions, and (iv) an effective grievance redressal mechanism. Key features of the Bill include:
Constitution of the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine: The Bill provides for the establishment of the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM). The NCISM will consist of 29 members, appointed by the central government. A Search Committee will recommend names to the central government for the post of Chairperson, part time members, and presidents of the four autonomous boards set up under the NCISM. These posts will have a maximum term of four years. The Search Committee will consist of five members including the Cabinet Secretary and three experts nominated by the central government (of which two should have experience in any of the fields of Indian System of Medicine).
Members of the NCISM will include: (i) the Chairperson, (ii) the President of the Board of Ayurveda, (iii) the President of the Board of Unani, Siddha, and Sowa-Rigpa, (iv) the President of the Medical Assessment and Rating Board for Indian System of Medicine, (v) Advisor or Joint Secretary in-charge of Ayurveda, Ministry of AYUSH, and (vi) three members (part-time) to be elected by the registered medical practitioners of Ayurveda, and one member each by the respective registered medical practitioners of Siddha, Unani, and Sowa-Rigpa from amongst themselves from the prescribed regional constituencies under the Bill.
Further, within three years of the passage of the Bill, state governments will establish State Medical Councils for Indian System of Medicine at the state level.
Functions of the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine: Functions of the NCISM include: (i) framing policies for regulating medical institutions and medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine, (ii) assessing the requirements of healthcare related human resources and infrastructure, (iii) ensuring compliance by the State Medical Councils of Indian System of Medicine of the regulations made under the Bill, and (iv) ensuring coordination among the autonomous boards set up under the Bill.
Autonomous boards: The Bill sets up certain autonomous boards under the supervision of the NCISM. These boards are: (i) the Board of Ayurveda and the Board of Unani, Siddha, and Sowa-Rigpa: They will be responsible for formulating standards, curriculum, guidelines for setting up of medical institutions, and granting recognition to medical qualifications at the undergraduate and post graduate levels in their respective disciplines, (ii) the Medical Assessment and Rating Board for Indian System of Medicine: It determine the process of rating and assessment of medical institutions and have the power to levy monetary penalties on institutions which fail to maintain the minimum standards It will also grant permission for establishing a new medical institution, and (iii) the Ethics and Medical Registration Board: It will maintain a National Register of all licensed medical practitioners of Indian System of Medicine, and regulate their professional conduct. Only those included in the Register will be allowed to practice Indian System of Medicine.
Advisory Council for Indian System of Medicine: Under the Bill, the central government will constitute an Advisory Council for Indian System of Medicine. The Council will be the primary platform through which the states/union territories can put forth their views and concerns before the NCISM. Further, the Council will advise the NCISM on measures to determine and maintain the minimum standards of medical education.
Entrance examinations: There will be a uniform National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test for admission to under-graduate education in each of the disciplines of the Indian System of Medicine in all medical institutions regulated by the Bill. The NCISM will specify the manner of conducting common counselling for admission in all such medical institutions. The Bill proposes a common final year National Exit Test for the students graduating from medical institutions to obtain the license for practice. Further, there will be a uniform post-graduate National Entrance Test which will be conducted separately for admission into post-graduate courses in each of the disciplines of the Indian System of Medicine in all medical institutions.
The Bill also proposes a National Teachers’ Eligibility Test for postgraduates of each discipline of Indian System of Medicine who wish to take up teaching that particular discipline as a profession.
https://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/national-commission-indian-system-medicine-bill-2019
4. Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Homoeopathy Medicine Bill 2019.
1. Within three years of the passage of the Bill, state governments will establish State Medical Councils for Homoeopathy at the state level.
2. It proposes to setup a National Commission for Homoeopathy (NCH) which will replace the existing regulator Central Council for Homoeopathy (CCH) so as to ensure transparency.
3. Board of ethics and registration of practitioners of Homoeopathy will maintain National Register and ethical issues relating to practice are under the NCH.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer-d
Explanation-
National Commission for Homoeopathy Medicine Bill 2019
The Bill seeks to repeal the Homoeopathy Central Council Act, 1973 and provide for a medical education system which ensures: (i) availability of adequate and high quality homoeopathic medical professionals, (ii) adoption of the latest medical research by homoeopathic medical professionals, (iii) periodic assessment of medical institutions, and (iv) an effective grievance redressal mechanism. Key features of the Bill include:
Constitution of the National Commission for Homoeopathy: The Bill sets up the National Commission for Homoeopathy (NCH). The NCH will consist of 20 members, appointed by the central government. A Search Committee will recommend names to the central government for the post of Chairperson, part time members, and presidents of the three autonomous boards set up under the NCH. These posts will have a maximum term of four years. The Search Committee will consist of six members including the Cabinet Secretary and three experts nominated by the central government (of which two will have experience in the homoeopathic field).
Members of the NCH will include: (i) the Chairperson, (ii) the President of the Homoeopathy Education Board, (iii) the President of the Medical Assessment and Rating Board for Homoeopathy, (iv) the Director General, National Institute of Homoeopathy, (v) Advisor or Joint Secretary in-charge of Homoeopathy, Ministry of AYUSH, and (vi) four members (part-time) to be elected by the registered homoeopathic medical practitioners from amongst themselves from the prescribed regional constituencies under the Bill. Within three years of the passage of the Bill, state governments will establish State Medical Councils for Homoeopathy at the state level
Functions of the National Commission for Homoeopathy: Functions of the NCH include: (i) framing policies for regulating medical institutions and homoeopathic medical professionals, (ii) assessing the requirements of healthcare related human resources and infrastructure, (iii) ensuring compliance by the State Medical Councils of Homoeopathy of the regulations made under the Bill, and (iv) ensuring coordination among the autonomous boards set up under the Bill.
Autonomous boards: The Bill sets up certain autonomous boards under the supervision of the NCH. These boards are: (i) the Homoeopathy Education Board: It will be responsible for formulating standards, curriculum, guidelines for setting up of medical institutions, and granting recognition to medical qualifications at the undergraduate and post graduate levels respectively, (ii) the Medical Assessment and Rating Board for Homoeopathy: It determine the process of rating and assessment of medical institutions and have the power to levy monetary penalties on institutions which fail to maintain the minimum standards It will also grant permission for establishing a new medical institution, and (iii) the Board of Ethics and Medical Registration for Homoeopathy: It will maintain a National Register of all licensed homoeopathic medical practitioners, and regulate their professional conduct. Only those medical practitioners included in the Register will be allowed to practice homoeopathic medicine.
Advisory Council for Homoeopathy: Under the Bill, the central government will constitute an Advisory Council for Homoeopathy. The Council will be the primary platform through which the states/union territories can put forth their views and concerns before the NCH. Further, the Council will advise the NCH on measures to determine and maintain minimum standards of medical education.
Entrance examinations: There will be a uniform National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test for admission to under-graduate homoeopathy education in all medical institutions regulated by the Bill. The NCH will specify the manner of conducting common counselling for admission in all such medical institutions. The Bill proposes a common final year National Exit Test for the students graduating from medical institutions to obtain the license for practice. Further, there will be a uniform Post-Graduate National Entrance Test which will serve as the basis for admission into post-graduate courses at medical institutions.
The Bill also proposes a National Teachers’ Eligibility Test for postgraduates of homoeopathy who wish to take up teaching homoeopathy as a profession.
Appeal on matters related to professional and ethical misconduct: State Medical Councils will receive complaints relating to professional or ethical misconduct against a registered homoeopathic medical practitioner. If the medical practitioner is aggrieved of a decision of the State Medical Council, he may appeal to the Board of Ethics and Medical Registration for Homoeopathy. The State Medical Councils and the Board of Ethics and Medical Registration for Homoeopathy have the power to take disciplinary action against the medical practitioner including imposing a monetary penalty. If the medical practitioner is aggrieved of the decision of the Board, he can approach the NCH to appeal against the decision. Appeal of the decision of the NCH lies with the central government.
https://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/national-commission-homoeopathy-bill-2019
5 Consider the following statements regarding the Call Data Record (CDR).
1. A CDR of a subscriber is a string of information about that mobile phone number for a particular time period.
2. Only an officer of the rank of SP and above was authorised to seek details from telecom operators, and inform the DM of CDRs obtained every month under the new guidelines.
3. The government has claimed that the recent increase in requests for bulk CDRs was to investigate the call drop situation.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer-d
Explanation-
Call Data Record (CDR)
A Call Data Record (CDR) of a subscriber is a string of information about that mobile phone number for a particular time period.
This string of information includes details such as the name of the subscriber, the details of calls made by this subscriber during a given time period, the duration of each call, whether the call terminated normally or abnormally, rough location of the caller etc.
Under the new guidelines, only an officer of the rank of SP and above was authorised to seek details from telecom operators, and inform the DM of CDRs obtained every month. The current request is not in line with these guidelines.
The government has claimed that the recent increase in requests for bulk CDRs was to investigate the call drop situation.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/seeking-phone-call-records-infringement-of-right-to-privacy-congress/article31101837.ece/amp/
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/dot-call-data-records-telecom-operators-explained-6320053/