Current based PRELIMS QUESTION 28 April 2020

 

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1. Consider the following statements regarding the PROJECT 75(I).
1. This project envisages the construction of six conventional submarines with better sensors and weapons and the Air Independent Propulsion System (AIP).
2. The P75I project is part of a 30-year submarine building plan that ends in 2030.
3. Under it, six new-generation nuclear submarines will be constructed.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and c only
(c) 1 and 2only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Answer-C
Explanation-
PROJECT 75(I)
The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) approved indigenous construction of Six Project 75(I) submarines for the Indian Navy at a cost of over Rs. 40,000 crores under strategic partnership model.
The Ministry of Defence has issued the “Expression of Interest” (EoI) to shortlist potential Indian Strategic Partners (SPs) under the strategic partnership model (SP Model) for the construction of six conventional submarines under Project 75 India of the Indian Navy in collaboration with the selected manufacturer.
Under the SP model, government will also nominate the foreign original equipment manufacturer (OEM) under the umbrella of ‘Make in India’.
This is a step towards opening a second production line for diesel electric submarines in India. The first was the procurement of 111 Naval Utility Helicopters (NUH).
Four foreign firms have so far responded to the Indian government’s request for proposal for the project. These are French firm Naval Group, Russia’s Rosoboronexport Rubin Design Bureau, Germany’s ThyssenKrupp Marine Systems and Sweden’s Saab.
P75I was first cleared in 2007, but lay dormant until now after undergoing numerous changes.
The P75I project is part of a 30-year submarine building plan that ends in 2030.
As part of this plan, India was to build 24 submarines — 18 conventional submarines and six nuclear-powered submarines (SSNs) — as an effective deterrent against China and Pakistan.
This project envisages the construction of six conventional submarines with better sensors and weapons and the Air Independent Propulsion System (AIP).
The project has been cleared under the strategic partnership model.
Background
In 1999, the Cabinet Committee on Security had approved a ‘30-Year Plan for Indigenous Submarine Construction’. It was to develop two production lines on which six submarines would be built each named Project 75 and Project 75 (I) with foreign submarine makers.
These two projects will replace ageing Sindhughosh and Shishumar class submarines of Indian Navy, which numbered around 13.
INS Kalvari, the first Scorpene class submarine, was commissioned into the navy in December 2017 under Project-75; the remaining five are at different stages of construction and trials.
Current submarine arsenal of India
India’s current arsenal consists of 14 conventional submarines and two nuclear-powered submarines. Only half of the conventional submarines are operational including the Scorpene.
India also has two nuclear-powered submarines namely INS Arihant (a ballistic missile submarine) and INS Chakra leased from Russia.
India’s nuclear submarine arm is based in Visakhapatnam while the diesel electric submarines are primarily based both in Mumbai and Visakhapatnam.
Strategic Partnership (SP) Model
SP model in Defence sector was approved by Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) in 2017. This was implemented to enable participation of private Indian firms in Make in India in defence. This will also ensure development of a wider skill base and will trigger innovation.
This model aims to revitalize defence industrial ecosystem, increase efficiencies, facilitate faster and more significant absorption of technology and progressively build indigenous capabilities in the private sector to design, develop and manufacture complex weapon systems for the future needs of the Armed Forces.
The Indian strategic partner will be the systems integrator by building an extensive ecosystem and will tie-up with foreign manufacturers to cover manufacturing, transfer of technology and assistance in building.
Four segments have been identified for acquisition SP route
• Fighter Aircraft
• Helicopters
• Submarines
• Armoured Fighting Vehicles (AFVs) / Main Battle Tanks (MBTs).
Air-independent propulsion (AIP)
AIP is any marine propulsion technology that allows a non-nuclear submarine to operate without access to atmospheric oxygen.
It can augment or replace the diesel-electric propulsion system of non-nuclear vessels.
Significance
In addition to bringing in the latest submarine design and technologies, it would provide a major boost to the indigenous design, construction capability of submarines in India, timely delivery of equipment to Armed forces and reduction in dependence on imports and greater self-reliance in meeting national security objectives.

2. Consider the following statements regarding the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI).
1. It was launched in 1916 to promote survey, exploration, and research to enhance the knowledge regarding the fauna.
2. It has been declared as a designated repository for the National Zoological Collection as per Section 39 of the National Biodiversity Act, 2002.
3. It prepares the Red Data Book for Fauna of India and Fauna of States.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Answer-d
Explanation
Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) was established on 1st July, 1916 to promote survey, exploration and research leading to the advancement in our knowledge of various aspects of exceptionally rich life of the erstwhile ´British Indian Empire´.
The survey has its genesis in the establishment of the Zoological Section of the Indian Museum at Calcutta in 1875. By gradually strengthening its staff and expanding its research programme, the Survey has met the challenge of the past and is on its way to meet the demands of the future. Initially, the ZSI had eight regional centres across India. Currently, there are 16 regional centres spread across the country.
The headquarters are in Kolkata.
It has been declared as a designated repository for the National Zoological Collection as per Section 39 of the National Biodiversity Act, 2002.
ZSI publishes the Red Data Book on Indian Animals. It was first published in 1983 and is similar to the Red Data Book published by IUCN.
Objective
The objectives of ZSI are classified as follows:
Primary Objectives
Exploration, Survey, Inventorying and Monitoring of faunal diversity in various States, Ecosystems and Protected areas of India
Taxonomic studies of all faunal components collected
Periodic review of the Status of Threatened and Endemic species
Preparation of Red Data Book, Fauna of India and Fauna of States
Bioecological studies on selected important communities/species
Preparation of databases for the recorded species of the country
Maintenance & Development of National Zoological Collections
Training, Capacity Building and Human Resource Development
Faunal Identification, Advisory services and Library Services
Publication of results including Fauna of India and Fauna of States
Secondary Objectives
Environmental Impact Studies
Maintenance and Development of Museum at Headquarters and Regional Stations
Development of ENVIS and CITES Centers
Research Fellowship, Associateship and Emeritus Scientist Programmes
Collaborative research programmes on Biodiversity with other Organizations
GIS and Remote Sensing studies for animal diversity as well as for selected threatened species
Chromosomal Mapping and DNA finger printing.

3. Consider the following statements with respect to the Narcotics Control Bureau.
1. It was constituted in 1986 under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985.
2. The National Policy on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances is based on Article 47 of the Indian Constitution.
3. It coordination of actions taken by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the Ministry of Welfare and other concerned Ministries or Departments to drug abuse.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Answer-d
Explanation-
Narcotics Control Bureau
It was constituted by the Government of India in 1986 under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985.
It is the apex coordinating agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
The National Policy on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances is based on Article 47 of the Indian Constitution which directs the State to endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption, except for medicinal purposes, of intoxicating drugs injurious to health.
Drug abuse control is the responsibility of the central government.
Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
It provides for the penalty of property derived from or used in illegal traffic in narcotic drugs.
The Act made an express provision for constituting a Central Authority for the purpose of exercising the powers and functions of the Central Government under the Act.
The notification dated 17-3-1986 constituting the NCB sets out the following charter for the Bureau:
Coordination of actions by various officers, State Governments and other authorities under the principal Act, the Customs Act, 1962, the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and any other law for the time being in force in connection with the enforcement of the principal Act.
Implementation of the obligations in respect of counter-measures against illicit traffic under various international conventions.
Assistance to the concerned authorities in foreign countries and concerned international organizations with a view to facilitating coordination and universal action for prevention and suppression of illicit traffic in narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
Coordination of actions taken by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the Ministry of Welfare and other concerned Ministries, Departments or Organisations in respect of matters relating to drug abuse.

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab Land Preservation Act (PLPA).
1. All non-forest activities in and along the Aravali hills have, for long, been prohibited, to preserve the ecology of these mountains under this act.
2. The British had enacted a special law, the Punjab Land Preservation Act (PLPA) in 1900.
3. Around 30% of the Aravali area falling in the Faridabad and Gurugram districts which are notified as protected forests under the PLPA now stands privatised.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4.Answer-d
Explanation-
What is the PLP Act?
All non-forest activities in and along the Aravali hills have, for long, been prohibited, to preserve the ecology of these mountains.
The British had enacted a special law, the Punjab Land Preservation Act (PLPA), for this purpose way back in 1900.
PLPA has now been diluted by the Haryana government.
The amendments took away the forest status of large chunks of these hills and threw open them for commercial activities.
These are areas under master plans of cities such as Gurugram, Faridabad, Nuh, Mahendragarh and Rewari.
The move would take away the protection offered to them under the PLP Act.
What are the concerns in the use?
Large scale illegal encroachments and misuse of the Aravali forests for realty, mining and other commercial purposes are going on since the 1970s.
The urbanisation has gradually encroached agricultural and forest lands as newer living and working spaces were developed.
Lakhs of dwelling units, commercial buildings and industries have already come up in this fragile mountainous track.
Around 30% of the Aravali area falling in the Faridabad and Gurugram districts which are notified as protected forests under the PLPA now stands privatised.
The Haryana portion of the Aravali range remains the country’s most degraded forest, as per a Wildlife Institute of India study.
The rapid and unabated deforestation and development activities are further damaging this unique landscape.
As many as 31 out of the 128 hills in the Rajasthan portion of the Aravallis have totally disappeared, flattened by the land and mining mafias.
http://haryanaforest.gov.in/en-us/Act-Rule/Punjab-Land-Preservation-Act

5. Consider the following statements regarding the Customs Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal (CESTAT).
1. This Tribunal was constituted under Article 323(B) of the Constitution of India by making provisions in the Customs Act 1962.
2. The Tribunal was constituted for expeditious disposal of appeals which were earlier handled by Central Board of Excise and Customs.
3. In classification and valuation matters, the appeal against orders of the Tribunal lies only to the Hon’ble Supreme Court.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Answer-d
Customs Excise And Service Tax Appellate Tribunal (CESTAT)
CESTAT formerly known as Customs, Excise & Gold (Control) Appellate Tribunal was constituted on 11 th October 1982. The Appellate Tribunal was constituted under Article 323(B) of the Constitution of India by making provisions in the Customs Act 1962.
The Tribunal was constituted for expeditious disposal of appeals which were earlier handled by Central Board of Excise and Customs and which came up to Government in revision.
Over the years the procedures for dealing with various aspects of the Tribunal’s working were formulated. They partly reflect the provisions followed by Income Tax Appellate Tribunal and various High Courts and partly the self developed procedures out of necessity, catering to the special needs of this Tribunal.
CESTAT’s headquarter is at New Delhi and is headed by the President. The Tribunal is having regional Benches at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Ahmedabad, Allahabad, Chandigarh and Hyderabad.
CESTAT was created to provide as an independent forum to hear the appeals against orders passed by the Commissioners of Customs and Excise and Service Tax under the Customs Act, 1962, Central Excise Act, 1944 and Finance Act 1994. The Tribunal is also empowered to hear the appeals against orders passed by the Designated Authority in Anti Dumping Duties under the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
The Tribunal also hears appeals concerning Customs House Agent Licensing. Each Bench of the Tribunal consists of a Judicial Member and a Technical Member.
Matters not relating to valuation/classification upto Rs. 50 Lakhs revenue are heard by Single Member Bench. Except in the matters relating to classification and valuation of goods, the Tribunal is the final Appellate Authority as far as question of facts are concerned.
In classification and valuation matters, the appeal against orders of the Tribunal lies only to the Hon’ble Supreme Court.
The Tribunal may, in its discretion, refuse to admit an appeal in respect of an order where the amount of fine or penalty determined by such order, does not exceeds Two Lakhs rupees.
The CESTAT acts as a bull whack in dispensing justice in the areas of indirect tax litigation.